Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 01:25
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
How do I get rid of a cold in 1 day?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
The AI-generated ad that aired during the NBA finals took $2,000 and 2 days to make - Mashable
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.